U.P.P.C.S. (Main) Examination – 2009 GENERAL STUDIES (SECOND PAPER)
1.A mother is three times the age of her son. Five (5) years back the son was l/6’h the age of his father. If father is 5 years older than the mother, what is the age of the son.
(a) 10 yrs (b) 12yrs
(c) 14yrs (d) 15yrs
2. India’s Republic Day 1996 was celebrated on a Friday. What week day was it celebrated in the year 2000 ?
(a) Friday (b) Thursday
(c) Wednesday (d) Tuesday
3. In an enclosure of zoo, there are some rabbits and pigeons. If their heads are counted, the number comes to be 80 while their legs are 260. The number of pigeons are.
(a) 50 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 20
4. Bipin travelled by car for 4 days, 10 hours each day. He drove first day at the speed of 45 kms/hr, Second day at 40 kms/hr. third day at 38″ kms/hr and fourth day at 37 kms/hr. What was his average speed ?
(a) 44 kms/hr (b) 42 kms/hr
(c) 41 kms/hr (d) 40 kms/hr
5. If Sunday comes 6 days from today and today is 15th October, the day on 1st January next year is
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday
6. What is the next number ? 6, 24, 60,120, 210 …
(a) 336 (b) 316
(c) 280 (d) 360
7. Seven children A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a line such that
(i) G is right to D and left to B.
(ii) A is on the right of C.
(iii) A and D have one child between them.
(iv) E and B have two children between them
(v) D and F have two children between them
The child who is exactly in the middle is
(a) A (b) C
(c) D (d) G
8. The missing letter in the following is
(a) R (b) O
(c) P (d) Q
10. Which of the following represents the sequence in which the following words occur in a dictionary ?
(i) Telegraph (ii) Telephone
(iii) Teleprinter (iv) Telemark
(v) Telepathy
(a) (i). (ii), (iii), (iv). (v)
(b) (v),(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (i), (iv), (v), (ii), (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (i)
11. In a certain code MAILED is coded as NBJMFE, then LETTER is to be written as
(a) MUUFGY (b) PFUUMY
(c) DMBTTS (d) MFUUFS
12. On a circle with centre at 0 and radius 4, there are two points P and Q. The maximum length of arc which could separate P and Q is
13. In the given figure if PQR is an isosceles triangle and PSR is an equilateral triangle and x = 26° then the value of y(in degrees) will be
(a) 37° (b) 27°
(c) 17° (d) 47°
14. The last number, which must be added to 7912 to make it a perfect square, is
(a) 8 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 16
15. The scores in a test series were 43, 56,35,47, 48, 52,66,57,46, 39,43,47, 61,55,50, 49,39,40
If the scores were organised in deciles series, which series would be the most popular ?
(a) 60s (b) 50s
(c) 40s (d) 30s
16. The mode of a distribution shows
(a) 50% of frequency
(b) mid point of the distribution
(c) variability
(d) none of these
17. A “standard deviation” of a frequency distribution shows
(a) central tendency of score
(b) correlation between scores
(c) variability between scores
(d) none of these
19. We wish to represent the data through graph or diagram related to number of unemployed persons according to specified age groups and sex. The best way of representation will be
(a) Line diagram (b) Pie chart
(c) Multiple bar chart (d) Divide bar chart
20. The graphs and diagrams
(a) can represent unlimited data
(b) show exact value
(c) take less time to prepare
(d) give a quick picture of a situation
21. In the given graph, what is the relationship between levels of anxiety and levels of performance ?
(A) Both high and low levels of anxiety are not conducive to high performance.
(B) Moderate anxiety is optimum for best performance.
(C) Performance is not related to anxiety.
(D) There is an inverse relationship between performance and anxiety.
Which of the above is/are correct interpretation of graph ?
(a) Only (A) is correct.
(b) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(c) Only (B) is correct.
(d) Both (C) and (D) are correct.
22 Sri Singh has invested his capital in three securities viz Reliance Ltd. TISCO and Satyam, ` 40,000, ` 50,000 and ` 80,000 respectively. If he collects dividends of ` 10,000 from each company, what is his average return from three securities ?
(a) 14.56% (b) 15.03%
(c) 16.56% (d) 17.65%
25. Ogives, for more than and less than types intersect at
(a) mean (b) median
(c) mode (d) origin
29. The Constitution grants right against exploitation to
(a) Children (b) Women
(c) Tribals (d) Dalits
Choose your correct answer with the help ofgi ve codes:
Codes :
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2. 3 and 4 only
31. Which one of the following is a Directive principle of State Policy ?
(a) The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment.
(b) The State shall not deny to any person equality before law.
(c) The State shall not discriminate against any person on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place or birth.
(d) Untouchability enforcement.
32. What was the exact Constitutional Status of the Indian Republic on 26-01-1950 when the Constitution was inaugurated ?
(a) A Democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.
33. Consider the following in the following sequence:
1. Cabinet Mission 2. Simon Commission
3. Cripps Mission 4. Poona Pact
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2, 4, 3 and 1 are correct
(c) 4. 3. 2 and 1 are correct
(d) 3,1,4 and 2 are correct
34. The number of Lok Sabha members who can table a ‘No Confidence Motion’ against the Council of Ministers is
(a) 30 (b) 40
(c) 50 (d) 60
35. Which Amendment of the Constitution provided that no law passed to give effect to Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Articles 39 (b) & (c) shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it abridges the rights conferred by Articles 14 and 19 ?
(a) 25th Amendment (b) 28th Amendment
(c) 42ndAmendment (d) 44th Amendment
36. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Hindu Marrigae Act – 1956
(b) Hindu Succession Act – 1956
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment – Reservation of seats tor women at the local level elected bodies in urban areas
(d) Sati (Prevention)Act – 1987
37. Which one of the following is incorrect ?
(a) Fundamental Duties arc the part of the Fundamental Rights.
(b) Fundamental Duties are not a part of Fundamental Rights.
(c) Fundamental Duties are enumerated in the Part -IV A of Indian Constitution.
(d) Article 51 A explains 10 duties of every citizen of India.
38. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity to all citizens of India in matters relating to public employment ?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16(1) and 16(2)
(c) Article 16(3)
(d) Article 16(3), (4) and (5)
39. Which one of the following functions is not related to the Election Commission ?
(a) Direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls.
(b) Conduct of all elections to the Parliament and Legislatures of every States.
(c) To conduct the election of the offices of President and Vice President.
(d) To make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures.
40 Which one among the following pairs of Articles relating to the Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during the enforcement of emergency under Article 359 of the Indian Constitution.
(a) Articles 20 and 21 (b) Articles 14 and 15
(c) Articles 16 and 17 (d) Articles 24 and 25
41. Election to the Office of the President is conducted by
(a) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) the Prime Minister’s Office
(c) the Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(d) the Election Commission of India
42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
A. Part IX of the Indian 1. The Union Territories Constitution
B. Part VIII of the Indian 2. The Municipalities Constitution
C. Part IV A of the Indian 3. The Panchayats Constitution
D. Part IX A of the Indian 4. Fundamental Duties Constitution
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
43. What is the Median of the following runs made by a team of cricketers?
47, 52, 69, 72, 112, 36, 28, 68, 69 and 41
(a) 69 (b) 68
(c) 52 (d) 60
44. Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of Members of Parliament ?
(a) The President
(b) The Concerned House
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The President in consultation with the Election Commission
45. Which Act of British Government granted ?One lakh for education in India for the first time.?
(a) Wood’s dispatch 1854
(b) Charter Act 1813
(c) Charter Act 1853
(d) Indian Council Act 1892
46. Which Article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its own judgment or order ?
(a) Article 137 (b) Article 130
(c) Article 139 (d) Article 138
47. Article 249 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(a) Emergency Power of the President
(b) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha
(c) Administrative Power of the Parliament
(d) Legislative Powers of the Parliament with respect to a matter in the State list
48. The First Amendment to the Constitution carried out in 1951 related to
(a) security of the country
(b) security of the Prime Minister
(c) protection of agrarian reforms in certain Stales
(d) scheduled castes and scheduled tribes
49. From a sales line of 10 products, how many ‘ subsets of 3 products can be offered to customers ?
(a) 130 (b) 125
(c) 124 (d) 120
50. Under the Preventive Detention a person can be detained without trial for
(a) one month (b) three months
(c) six months (d) nine months
51. Which provision relating to the Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of childern
(a) Art. 19 (b) Art. 17
(c) Art. 24 (d) Art. 23
52. The Constitution of India does not contain any provision for the impeachment of
(a) The President
(b) The Governor of a State
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Vice President of India
53. By Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments Delhi has become ‘National Capital Region’ ?
(a) 61st Amendment (b) 69st Amendment
(c) 71st Amendment (d) 79st Amendment
54. Which is the only State in India to have the Common Civil Code ?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) Mizoram
(c) Nagaland (d) Goa
55. The following table shows the distribution of life time of 350 radio tubes :
Lifetime in hrs 300-400 400-500 500-600 600-700
No. of tubes 6 18 73 165
Lifetime in hrs 700-800 800-900 900-1000
No. of tubes 62 22 4
Assuming that class frequencies are evenly distributed within the corresponding classes, find the percentage of tubes having life time between 650 hours and 850 hours
(a) 145 hours (b) 150 hours
(c) 156 hours (d) 161 hours
56. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged under the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) One
57. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) The Nehru Report (1928) had advocated the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935 referred to Fundamental Rights.
(c) The August Offer. 1940 included the Fundamental Rights.
(d) The Cripps Mission 1942 referred to Fundamental Rights.
58. The 79th Amendment of the Indian Constitution is related to
(a) Centre-State Relations
(b) Establishment of two political parties
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Reservation of SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies
59. The status of women in Indian Society is glorified by a judgement of a Court in September, 2003. The Court is
(a) Supreme Court of India
(b) Local Courts
(c) Special Courts
(d) High Court, U.P.
60. The first Session of the Consituent Assembly was held on
(a) 16th August, 1947 (b) 26th January, 1948
(c) 9th December, 1946 (d) 26th November, 1946
61. The Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
(a) was created under the original Constitution.
(b) is an extra-constitutional growth.
(c) was created by 44th Amendment.
(d) was created by the 85th Amendment.
62. Following table gives frequency distribution of marks of 70 students in a class test:
Marks obtained No. of students
30 – 34.5 5
35-39.5 10
40-44.5 15
45 – 49.5 30
50 – 54.5 5
55 – 60.0 5
Find what percentage of students secured 40 or more marks.
(a) 70% (b) 72.5 %
(c) 73.64% (d) 78.57%
63. States in Indian Union will receive at last what part of the following percentage of Central Tax under 13th Finance Commission recommendations ?
(a) 30.5 percent (b) 32.0 percent
(c) 33.5 percent (d) None of the above
64. In the Eleventh Five Year Plan annual growth rate in agriculture is aimed as
(a) 2.0 percent (b) 2.5 percent
(c) 3.0 percent (d) 4.0 percent
66. “Rastriya Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojna’ is mainly concerned with
(a) Cash crops
(b) Cereals
(c) Vegetables
(d) Exportable agricultural produce
67. The nodal agency for implementing the ‘Rural Infrastructure Development Fund Programmes’ is:
(a) NABARD
(b) State Co-operative Bank
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) State Bank of India
68. National Horticulture Mission was launched in which of the following Five Year Plans ?
(a) Eleventh Five Year Plan
(b) Tenth Five Year Plan
(c) Ninth Five Year Plan
(d) None of the above
69. Which of the following is not part of the “Second- generation of Economic Reforms” identified by the Government ?
(a) Oil-Sector Reforms
(b) Public Sector Reforms
(c) Legal System Reforms
(d) Reform of Government and Public Institutions
70. Consider the following statements with regard to the Planning Commission (PC) and Finance Commission (FC) and state which of these statements is not correct.
(a) Both, the Planning Commission and the Finance Commission are institutions for the transfer of resources from Centre to the States..
(b) Recommendations given by both are binding on the Government.
(c) While PC is a permanent body FC is constituted every 5 years
(d) FC awards non-plan resources while PC al locates plan resources.
71. ‘ADHAR’ is a programme
(a) to help senior-citizens
(b) to provide nutritional support to adolescent woman
(c) to train people for social defence
(d) to provide identity to Indian residents.
72. Which one of the following four country’s economy has market-cap more than the size of its GDP ?
(a) U.S.A. (b) India
(6) China (d) Japan
73. In the decade 2001-2010, the highest rate of gross domestic savings was achieved in the year
(a) 2005 – 06 (b) 2006 – 07
(c) 2007-08 (d) 2008-09
74. “Twenty Point Economic Programme’ was first launched in the year
(a) 1969 (b) 1975
(c) 1977 (d) 1980
75. Which one of the following regions has emerged as the largest International Trade Partner (Export and Import) of India in 2008-09 ?
(a) European Union (b) North America
(c) Asia and ASEAN (d) Africa
76. Project ‘ARROW’ is related with
(a) welfare of old scheduled tribal man
(b) a wing of the Armed Forces
(c) a standard of quality of garments
(d) giving a new identity to post offices
77. The Finance Ministry (Government of India) has introduced the concept of “Outcome-Budget” from 2005. Under this, the monitoring of the outcomes will be the responsibility of
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Ministry and Planning Commission jointly
(d) Ministry of Programme Implementation
78. Measured in terms of Purchasing Power Parity, Indian economy continues to be the 4th largest country in the world. The first three positions are occupied by
(a) USA. Japan, China (b) Japan, China, USA
(c) USA, UK, Japan (d) USA, China, Japan
79. Which South Asian Country has adopted “Gross National Happiness” as an index of the well-being of its citizens ?
(a) India (b) Bhutan
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Myanmar
80. In the Union Budget for 2010-11, capital receipts
(a) are greater than revenue receipts
(b) are less than revenue receipts
(c) are equal to revenue receipts
(d) arc equal to borrowings of the Government
81. Primary deficit in the Union Budget for 2010-11 is estimated at
(a) below 2 0 percent of the GDP (b) below 1 0 percent of the GDP
(c) above 2.0 percent of the GDP (d) between 2 and 3 percent of the GDP
82. Which one of the following has been the most important source of the tax revenue of the Union Government in 2009-10 ?
(a) Service Tax (b) Union Excise Duties
(c) Corporation Tax (d) Income Tax
83. Following is data of proposed expenditure by a State government in a particular year :
Item
Agr. & Rural development
Industries & Urban development
Health & Education
Mix
Proposed exp. in crores of
4,200
1,500
1,000
500
In the Pie diagram based on this data what angle at the centre will be made by the segment representing agr. rural development ?
(a) 180° (b) 210°
(c) 240° (d) 150°
84. When population experts refer to the possible “Demographic Bonus” that may accrue to India around 2016, they are referring to the Phenomenon of
(a) a surge in the population in the productive age group
(b) a sharp drop in the total population
(c) a decline in birth and death rates
(d) a well balanced sex ratio
85. Thirteenth Finance Commission has proposed that the combined debt-GDP ratio of the Centre and the States by year 2014-15 should be
(a) 76 percent (b) 70 percent
(c) 68 percent (d) 66 percent
86. The number of services subject to service tax in 2009-10 was
(a) 110 (b) 114
(c) 118 (d) 122
87. Which one of the following is not a constituent of Human Development Index ?
(a) Health and Nutrition
(b) Per Capital Income
(c) Life expectancy at Birth
(d) Gross Enrolment Rate
88. Which one of the following is not a recent measure for social protection ?
(a) Rastriya Swasthya Bima Yojna
(b) Skill Development Programme
(c) Aam Admi Bima Yojna
(d) Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008
89. Which one of the following forms the highest share in household savings in India ?
(a) Deposits (b) Currency
(c) Physical assets (d) Share and Debentures
90. On the basis of size and composition of external debt, World Bank has classified India as
(a) a moderately indebted country
(b) a less indebted country
(c) a heavily indebted country
(d) a critically indebted country
91. As per World Development Report 2008 of the World Bank, arrange the following countries according to the size of their economy in descending order. State which one of the following is the correct order ?
(a) China > USA > UK > India
(b) UK > China > USA > India
(c) USA > China > UK > India
(d) China > UK > USA > India
92. During the planning periods, the highest growth rate was achieved during the
(a) Eighth plan (b) Tenth plan
(c) Ninth plan (d) Seventh plan
93. GIST (Goods and Service Tax) is now proposed to be introduced in India from
(a) April 01, 2011 (b) April 01. 2012
(c) April 01. 2013 (d) April 01, 2014
95. Which of the following is the most important component of the liabilities of Commercial Banks in India ?
(a) Time deposits (b) Demand deposits
(c) Inter-bank liabilities (d) Other borrowings
96. Tax-GDP ratio in India in 2008-09 was estimated at
(a) 18.87 percent (b) 19.52 percent
(c) 17.84 percent (d) 16.39 percent
97. Agriculture income tax in India can be levied by
(a) State Governments
(b) Central Governments
(c) Local Governments
(d) Central and State Governments
98. Which of the following phyto hormone is mainly responsible for fruit ripening ?
(a) Cytokinin (b) Abscissic Acid
(c) Ethylene (d) None of the above
99. Which one of the following statements is true about technology device called “NETRA” ?
(a) It is a device which permits a blind man to read.
(b) It is a device which allows army to undertake right reconnaissance.
(c) It is an unmanned aerial vehicle which can travel upto 300 metres high.
(d) None of the above
100. The speed of a car is increased from 30 kms/hr to 50 kms/hr in 2 minutes. What is the acceleration of the car ?
(a) 800kms/h2 (b) 550 kms/h2
(c) 600kms/h2 (d) 650kms/h2
101. Which reference to biodiversity, which of the following regions in India is regarded as ‘HOTSPOT’? ‘
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(b) Gangetic Plain
(c) Central India
(d) None of the above
102. Cotton fibres are obtained from
(a) Leaves (b) Seed
(c) Stem (d) Root
103. Which one of the following is not a natural source of Vitamin A ?
(a) Mango (b) Papaya
(c) Carrot (d) Milk
104. If the distance between the Earth and the Sun were twice what it is now, the gravitational force exerted on the Earth by the Sun would be
(a) twice as large as it is now
(b) four times as large as it is now
(c) one fourth of what it is now
(d) half of what it is now
105. Which of the following gas is commonly used in Cryo-Bank for ex-situ conservation ?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
106. The weight of a body is
(a) the same everywhere on the surface of the earth
(b) maximum at the equator
(c) minimum at the poles
(d) maximum at the poles
107. What is Hydroponics ?
(a) Soil less culture of plants
(b) Grafting of plants
(c) Study of vegetable
(d) Water conservation
108. A Dentist mirror is a
(a) Cylindrical mirror (b) Concave mirror
(c) Convex mirror (d) Plane mirror
109. Two steel pins, sticking to the end of a bar magnet do not hang vertically because
(a) their heads are not properly rounded
(b) of the spherical shape of their heads
(c) similar poles repel
(d) for none of the above reasons
110. A breeder reactor is that which
(a) does not require fissionable material at all
(b) uses only heavy water
(c) produces more fissionable material than it bums
(d) none of these
111. Which of the following is used as a mosquito repellent ?
(a) Pyrethrum (b) Rotenone
(c) Ephedrine (d) None of the above
112. Which of the following is a source of biofertilizer?
(a) Yeast (b) Chlorella
(c) Azolla (d) Mold
113. The recent research station set up in the Antarctica is called
(a) Bharti (b) Dakshni Gangotri
(c) Maitri (d) None of the above
114. According to NASA, the evidence for the presence of life on Mars found till today include
(a) water alone
(b) water and gypsum alone
(c) water, gypsum and methane
(d) none of the above
115. The mirror used in search lights is
(a) concave (b) convex
(c) plane (d) none
116. Smoke screen are used in warfare for the purpose of concealment and camouflage, Smoke screens generally consists of fine particles of
(a) sodium chloride dispersed in air
(b) silver iodide dispersed in air
(c) titanium oxide dispersed in air
(d) magnesium oxide dispersed in air
117. What is the colour of Black box, that is found in air- craft?
(a) Orange (b) Red
(c) Blue (d) Black
118. Which one of the following is not an aircraft ?
(a) Jaguar (b) Dornier-228
(c) Sarath (BMP-II) (d) MIG-27M
119. Consider the following statements :
1. The most important technological application of liquid crystals is in digital display.
2. Modem is a device that is connected to a computer and to a phone line.
3. The National Institute of Oceanography is located at Coimbatore.
4. Virginis-70 is a system for recording video programmes.
Of these statements
(a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Only 2 and 3 arc correct
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) Only 3 and 4 are correct
121. A dynamo which is said to generate electricity actually acts as a
(a) source of ions (b) source of electric charge
(c) converter of energy (d) source of electrons
122. The disease in which high levels of uric acid in the blood are characteristic, is
(a) arthritis (b) gout
(c) rheumatism (d) rheumatism heart
123. Consider the following statements :
1. Coal, petroleum and natural gas are fossil fuels.
2. Gasohol is a mixture of benzene and alcohol.
3. Geothemal energy is a non conventional energy source.
4. Gobar gas contains mainly methane. Of these statements :
(a) Only 1 and 2 arc correct
(b) Only I and 2 are correct
(c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1,3 and 4 are correct
124. The most toxic metal pollutant of automobile exhaust is
(a) Copper (b) Lead
(c) Cadmium (d) None of the above
125. During industrial production of which of the following products, ozone depleting gas is not released ?
(a) Perfumes (b) Body sprays
(c) Foam mattresses (d) Modern Refrigerators
126. During dehydration, the substance that is usually lost by the body is
(a) sugar (b) calcium phosphate
(c) sodium chloride (d) potassium chloride
127. Half life of a radioactive substance is 60 minutes During 3 hours, the fraction of total number of atoms that would have decayed would be
(a) 8.5% (b) 12.5%
(c) 25% (d) 87.5%
128. The plants which are popularly known as “petro crops” are rich in
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Hydrocarbons
(c) Proteins (d) Lipids
Choose your answer from given codes : Codes :
(a) I. 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
129. Production of which pollutant gases that are emitted by use of CNG in vehicles is reduced when a more green fuel HCNG is used instead ?
(a) SO2 and CO (b) SO2 and CH4
(c) CO and H2 (d) NOx and CO2
130. Scientist of Manchester University have recently suggested formation of brightened clouds over Pacific by geo engineering to prevent further increase in global warming. What is sprayed in the atmosphere to achieve this ?
(a) Silver salts (b) Iron filings
(c) Sea water (d) Gypsum
131. National Inland Navigation Institute (NINI) is situated in
(a) Patna (b) Kolkata
(c) Goa (d) Gomuk, Uttarakhand
132. A carbon microphone is best used in a
(a) dynamo (b) telephone
(c) transformer (d) none of these
133. Missing number of the series (?) l,3,7,..?.,31,…?..are
(a) 14 and 60 (b) 13 and 63
(c) 15 and 60 (d) 15 and 63
134. In series 5, 7, 10, 14,15, 21, 20, 28, x, y What do x and y stand for ?
(a) 20,25 (b) 35,40
(c) 25,35 (d) 24,30
135. Salim purchased a suit length for `1,500/-. The tailor told him that the clot is shorter by 25 cms and that he has over-paid `100/-. What is the actual length of the cloth in his hand ?
(a) 3.5 m (b) 3.6 m
(c) 3.75 m (d) 4.0 m
136. Which of the following answer choices will replace question mark (?)
MILD : NKOH :: GATE : ?
(a) HDVQ (b) IBUF
(c) HCW1 (d) HDUR
137. A businessman invests `5,000/- each time at the end of 1960, 1965 and 1970. The total amount doubles every 5 years.
If he starts his business with `5,000/- in 1960 what the amount will be in 1980 ?
(a) `1,40,000 (b) `2,00,000
(c) `2,40,000 (d) `2.80,000
138. The marked price of a sofa set is `1,800 which is 20% above the cost price. If the merchant sells it at a discount of 5% on the marked price, his profit percentage would be
(a) 19% (b) 18%
(c) 15% (d) 14%
139. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are decreased by 20% each, then the area of the rectangle will be decreased by
(a) 20% (b) 40%
(c) 36% (d) None of the above
140. In an examination, every candidate took Hindi or English or both 65.8% took Hindi and 59.2% took English, the total number of candidate was 2000. How many candidates took Hindi and English both ?
(a) 750 (b) 700
(c) 600 (d) 500
141. A man spends a fixed amount per month on petrol. The trend with every hike in the price of petrol is as follows :
`/litre 1.5 2 3 4.5 6
Litres 60 45 30 20 ?
How many litres of petrol would replace ?
(a) 12 (b) 15
(c) 13.5 (d) 18
142. Fill in the next number in the series -1, 0, 1, 8, 27
(a) 48 (b) 63
(c) 64 (d) 72
143. A motorist covers a distance of 240 km at an average speed if 60/km/hr. He nade the return trip over the same distance in 6 hours. His average speed for the entire trip is
(a) 40 km/hr (b) 48 km/hr
(c) 50 km/hr (d) 55 km/hr
145. A fort had provisions for 150 soldiers for 45 days. After 10 days 25 soldiers left the fort. How long would the food last at the same rate for the remaining men ?
(a) 50 days (b) 42 days
(c) 65 days (d) 58 days
146. A shop gives 10% discount on the purchase of an item. If paid in cash immediately, a further discount of 12% is given. If the marked price of an item is `250/-what is the price of the article if a cash purchase is made ?
(a) `200 (b) `195
(c) `198 (d) `190
147. A little girls goes to purchase a doll priced at `600/-. She is offered 4 discount options. Which option she should prefer to gain maximum advantage of the discounts offered ?
(a) A single discount of 40%
(b) Two successive discounts of 20% each
(c) Two successive discounts of 30% and 10%
(d) Three successive discounts of 25%. 10% and 5%
148. If n is an integer between 0 and 100, then which of the following could not be 3n + 3 ?
(a) 300 (b) 297
(c) 208 (d) 63
149. If INDIA is written as 95491, then DELHI will be written as
(a) 45389 (b) 45489
(c) 45498 (d) 45398
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