2011- UPPCS Upper Subordinate Mains Question Paper

U.P.P.C.S. (Main) Examination – 2011 GENERAL STUDIES (SECOND PAPER)

1.The following table gives the revenue earned by s State in lakh rupees during the National Games:
Revenue in lakh rupees
Sale of TV Rights 540.00
Sale of tickets 125.00
Receipts from the terms 115.00
Donation 20.50
Advertisements 10.00
Royalty etc. 7.29
What is the earning from advertisement as the percentage of the total revenue ?
(a) 8.2 (b) 7.1
(c) 6. 7 (d) None of the above

3. The growth rate in India’s GDP at market prices has been as follows:
1999-2000
2000-2001 3.94
2001 – 2002 5.99
2002-2003 4.11
2003-2004 8.61
2004 – 2005 7.09
The appropriate measure for deriving the average growth rate is
(a) A.M. (b) G.M.
(c) H.M. (d) Median
4.The arithmetic mean of certain observations is 35 If each number is increased by 5, what will be the arithmetic mean ?
(a) 32 (b) 40
(c) 43 (d) 60
UPPCS Mains Exam 2012 General Studies II Question Paper
5.The following gives the data regarding accident occurring a certain period :
Number of accident 1 2 3 4 5 6
Frequency: 19 22 31 9 3 2
On how many days, three or less accidents occurred ?
(a) 8 (b) 55
(c) 68 (d) 72
6.The following table gives the distribution of students according to the marks obtained in a paper:
Marks Number of Students
Below 10 15
Below 20 38
Below 30 65
Below 40 84
Below 50 100
What is the number of students getting 30 or more than 30 marks ?
(a) 35 (b) 43
(c) 50 (d) 65
7.Consider two investments A and B such that the coefficient of variation for investment A is 30% and the coefficient of variation for investment B is ‘ 7.5%. Then
(a) Investment A is more volatile than B
(b) Investment B is more volatile than A
(c) Nothing can be concluded
(d) None of the above is correct
8. As feet are to shoes, so head is to
(a) umbrella (b) comb
(c) hat (d) hair
9.The total population consisting of children, adults and old persons in 900 K. If in a pie-diagram, the’ angles subtended by them at the centre are 100°, 180″ and 80° respectively, what will be their] respective numbers ?
(a) 250 K. 450 K. 200 K (b) 210 K, 490 K, 200 K
(c) 200 K, 450 K. 250 K (d) None of the above
10.Which one of the following can be the graphical representation of data ? Select the correct answer from the code given below :
1. Bar Diagram
2. Frequency Curve
3. Frequency Table Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only

13. An organization has 80 male and 20 female employees. The average salary of male employees is ` 25,000, but the average salary of female employees is ` 17,000. What will be the combined average of the salary ?
(a) ` 21,000 (b) ` 22,400
(c) ` 23,400 (d) ` 19,500
14. The distribution of the population of a city according to literacy is as follows :
Literate Men 35%
Literate Women 33?-
Illiterate Men 24%
Illiterate Women 8%
If the total population of the city is 2, 50,000, how many more men are literate as compared to literate women?
(a) 10,000 (b) 5,000
(c) 1,500 (d) 500
15.The arithmetic mean of 50 observations was found to be 36. It was later on discovered that it was wrong because an observation of 48 was wrongly taken as 23. What will be the correct mean ?
(a) 35.2 (b) 35.9
(c) 36.5 (d) 36.8
16. Which of the following is/are statistical statement(s) ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. Kalidas was a great poet.
II.The average age of the students in a college is 20 years.
Codes:
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

(a) 260 (b) 265

(c) 260 (d) None of the above

19.Consider the following Venn diagram drawn after conducting a survey of 50 persons, most of whom read one or more newspapers:

In a population of 10,000 persons, how many can be expected to be reading at least two newspapers?
(a) 5,000 (b) 5,400
(c) 6,000 (d) 6,250
20. If x boys and y girls sit in a row randomly, in how many ways can all the girls sit together ?
(a) (x + l)!y! (b) x!y!
(c) x! (y −1) (d) None of the above

(a) 144 (b) 200
(c) 240 (d) 260
UPPCS Main Exam 2012 General Studies I Question Paper
22. If a person travels three equal distances at a speed of x kms/hr, y kms/hr and z kms/hr respectively, the average speed for the whole journey is

23. Which of the following statements is correct about a Cumulative Frequency Table ?
(a) It can only be a “Less than” table.
(b) It can only be a “More than” table.
(c) It can be both “Less than” table as well as “More than” table.
(d) It is neither a “Less than” table nor a “More than” table.
24. What will be the value of log5 {log525 + log5125} ?
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 5 (d) None of the above
25. Three years ago, the average age of X and Y was 18 years. With X joining them, this average age became 22 years. What was the age of ‘Z’ ?
(a) 30 years (b) 26 years
(c) 29 years (d) 291/2 years
26. A car covers a distance of 150 kms at an average speed of 50 km/hour, but returns at an average speed of 30 km/hour. What has been its average speed for the whole journey ?
(a) 35.5 km/hour (b) 36 km/hour
(c) 37.5km/hour (d) 39 km/hour
27. A man bought some rice at the rate of ? 15/kg and some other quantity at the rate of ? 24/kg. He mixed them and sold at the rate of ? 21.60/kg gaining a profit of 20%. What was the respective ratio of the two varieties ?
(a) 1:2 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 3:2 (d) 2:3
28. Mean deviation is minimum with respect to
(a) Mean (b) Mode
(c) Median (d) Range
29. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The Union Finance commission does not have any role in considering measures for giving financial assitance to local bodies.
Reason (R) : In spite of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, local government continues to be a state subject in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Codes;
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
30. Which one or the following expenditure is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India ?
(a) Salary and allowances of the Chief Justice of lndia
(b) Salary and allowances of the comptoller and Auditor-Genral of India
(c) Salary and allowances of the Prime Minister of India.
(d) Salary and allowances of the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
31. The President of India is elected by
(a) Rajya Sabha members only
(b) Lok Sabha members only
(c) Members of the State Assemblies and Lok Sabha only
(d) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembles of the States.
32. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) A Money Bill is introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
(b) A Money Bill can bf introduced in either of the two Houses of the Parliament-
(c) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
(d) A Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha.
33. Which one of the following statements about Rajya Sabha is correct ?
(a) It is note subject to dissolution.
(b) Its members are chosen by direct election from territiorial constituencies in the States.
(c) It is required to choose, as soon as may be, a member of the Rajya Sabha to be the Chairman there of
(d) The Attorney General of India does not have the right to speak in Rajya Sabha.
34. Indian Parliament consists of
(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
(c) Speaker and Lok Sabha
(d) President and both the Houses of Parliament
35. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution dealing with the Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?
(a) 17 (b) 19
(c) 24 (d) 25
36. India has borrowed the concept of concurrent list from the Constitution of
(a) U.S.A. (b) Switzerland
(c) Australia (d) U.S.S.R.
37. Which one of the following is not a feature of India polity?
(a) A Government following the Constitution
(b) Democratic Government
(c) Rule of Law
(d) Authoritarian Government
38. Which one of the following Acts led to the separation of Burma from India ?
(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
39. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the power of the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list ?
(a) The Rajya Sabha has to declare that it would be necessary in the national interest
(b) A resolution has to be passed by Rajya Sabha by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting
(c) The legislation could be for the whole or any part of the country
(d) Only the Rajya Sabha can make laws with respect to a matter in the State list in the national interest.
40. Which one of the following is not correct in the matter of formation of new States ?
(a) Parliament may be law form a new State.
(b) Such law shall contain provisions for the amendment of the First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule and the Fourth in Schedule of the Constitution.
(c) Such law shall be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purpose of article 368.
(d) No Bill for enancting such law shall be introduced in the Parliament unless it has been referred to the legislature of the State, whose area, boundaires or name is affected.
41.Which one of the following is correct with regard to the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by the Supreme Court of India ?
(a) The President of India has the power of review such a judgement or order.
(b) The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgement or order.

(c) The Cabinet has the power to review such a judgement or order with the permission of the President of India.
(d) The Supreme Court it does not have the power to review its own judgement or order.
42. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the elections to the Lok Sabha ?
(a) The elections are on the basis of adult suffrage
(b) The Election Commission is required to conduct the elections.
(c) The electoral rolls are prepared under the direction and control of the President of India.
(d) On the request of the Election Commission, the President is required to make available to the Election Commission such staff as may be necessary for the discharge of its functions.
43. Who amongst the following has the power to withhold assent to a Bill, after It has been passed by the two Houses of Parliament ?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
44. Consider the following statements and .select the correct answer from the code given below :
1. The executive power of the Union vests in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.
3. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.
4. The Prime Minister, at the time of his appointment, need not be a member of either House of Parliament
Codes:
(a) Only 1,2 and 4 are correct.
(b) Only 1,2 and 3 are correct.
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
45. The ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
(a) The Vice-President (b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister (d) The Speaker
46. Fundamental Duties of the citizens of India are enumerated in
(a) Part-1 of the Constitution
(b) Part II of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV A of the Constitution
47. Who amongst the following attends the Meetings of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(d) None of the above

49. Article 371 of the Constitution makes special provisions of which of the following States ?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Nagaland
(d) Andhra Pradesh
50. When did the Indian Constituent Assembly meet for the first time ?
(a) 26 January, 1950 (b) 15 August, 1947
(c) 9 December, 1946 (d) 19 November, 1949
51. Which one of the following terms does not appear in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Annual Financial Statement
(b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Budget
(d) Consolidated Fund of India
52. The principles for election to the State Legislatures include:
1. It will be on the basis of adult suffrage.
2. There will be only one electoral roll for every territorial constituency.
3. Religion, race, sex etc will have-no place in the formation of electoral roll.
4. The Political parties will be free to have their own norms.
Select the correct answer from the given code :
Codes:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All the four
53. Which one of the ft-Moving in List-Ill concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(a) Criminal Procedure (b) Police
(c) Prisons (d) Public Order
54. Who amongst the following had never been the Chief Minister of any State before becoming the Prime Minister of India ?
(a) H.D. Dave Gowda (b) P.V Narsimha Rao
(c) Chandra Shekhar (d) Morarji Desai
55. The country from where the concept of Public Interest Litigation originated is
(a) Australia (b) India
(c) U.S.A. (d) U.K.
56. Who amongst the following advised that the Indian National Congress should be disbanded as a political party after the independence of India ?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) Jai Prakash Narayan
(c) Acharya Kripalani (d) Mahatma Gandhi
57. Which of the following States does not have any Pachayati Raj Institution ?
(a) Assam (b) Kerala
(c) Nagaland (d) Tripura
58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(Article of the (Subject Matter)
(Constitution of India)
A. 54 1. Appointment of a Chief Minister
B. 75 2. Appointment of a Governor
C. 155 3. Appointment of the Prime Minister
D. 164 4. Election of the President
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3
59. The National Rural Health Mission aims to reduce Infant Mortality Rate to
(a) 30 per 1000 live births by 2012
(b) 30 per 1000 live births by 2014
(c) 35 per 1000 live births by 2012
(d) 35 per 1000 live births by 2014
60. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop ?
(a) Arhar (Tur) (b) Gram
(c) Maize (d) Paddy
61. The number of public sector banks in India (excluding State Bank of India Group) is presently
(a) 28 (b) 27
(c) 20 (d) 19
62. In the Union Budget for 2011-12, which one of the following sectors has been allocated largest outlay ?
(a) Rural Development
(b) Social Services (excluding Rural Housing)
(c) Energy
(d) Transport
63. On which date was the new Wholesale Price Index with 2004-05 as the base year released ?
(a) 14 September, 2010 (b) 2 October, 2010
(c) 1 January, 2011 (d) 1 April, 2011
64. The sex-ratio of child population (0-6 years) in India since 1961 has been
(a) continously decreasing
(b) continoulsy increasing
(c) almost constant
(d) initially increasing and later decreasing
65. RESIDEX, an index of residential prices in India, was launched in the year
(a) 2001 (b) 2004
(c) 2007 (d) 2008
66. As on March 31, 2011, which one of the following States had the largest number of registered factories?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
67. Which one of the following village is the first Adhargaon under UID scheme ?
(a) Belha (Pratapgarh, U.P.)
(b) Jhanjar (Ajmer, Rajasthan)
(c) Shaukatpur (Patna, Bihar)
(d) Thembali (Nandurbar, Maharashtra)
68. Which of the following gives the correct sequence of the sex-ratio (2011) in decreasing order ?
(a) India, China, Pakistan, Bangladesh
(b) Bangladesh, India, Pakistan, China
(c) China, Pakistan, Bangladesh, India
(d) Bangladesh, Pakistan, India, China
69. KG-D6 Basin, which has been in the news since April, 2009 has large reserves of
(a) Coal (b) Crude oil
(c) Gas (d) Uranium
70. The correct full form of PVR cinemas is
(a) Priya Village Road Show
(b) Priya Videos & Reviews
(c) Parvati Videos & Reviews
(d) Priyam Village & Road Show
71. In which State, India’s largest Naphtha Cracker Plant was inaugurated by Union Petroleum Minister In February 2011 ?
(a) A.P. (b) Haryana
(c) Karnataka (d) Orissa
72. As per latest Educational Development Index, released in February 2011, which are the four States at the top ?
(a) Kerala, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab
(b) Kerala, Delhi. Bihar, U.P.
(c) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Haryana
(d) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Delhi
73. Which one of the following has been assigned the highest wieghtage by the Thirteenth Finance Commission of India while recommending devolution of Union taxes amongst States ?
(a) Area (b) Fiscal Displine
(c) Population (d) Fiscal Capacity Distance
74. Which of the following reveal infrastructure areas is not covered in the Bharat Nirman Scheme of Central Government ?
(a) Irrigation (b) Water supply
(c) Sanitation (d) Housing
75. As per data released by Government of India in March 2011, the per capita income of Indians rose by 14.5% in 2009-10. What is the per capita income figure (in nearest hundred) ?
(a) ` 40,600 (b) ` 42,300
(c) ` 46,500 (d) ` 47,100
76. According to the announcement by Government of India in March, 2011, which State U.T. recorded the highest per capita income during 2009-10?
(a) Chandigarh (b) Delhi
(c) Goa (d) Maharashtra
77. Which one of the following items has not been granted protection under the Geographical indications Act, 1998?
(a) Lucknow Chikan Craft
(b) Banarasi Saree
(c) Darjeeling Tea
(d) Surkha Guava of Allahabad
78. Which of the following States has the largest reserve of copper ore ?
(a) Bihar (b) Jharkhand
(c) Karnataka (d) Rajasthan
79. Investment limit for micro-enterprises, provided for in the Act passed in 2006 is
(a) ` 10 lakhs (b) ` 5 lakhs
(c) ` 2 lakhs (d) None of the above
80. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below the statements:
Assertion (A) : Zero-Base Budget has been introduced in India.
Reason (R) : Zero-Base Budget technique involves acritical review of every sheme before a budgetary provision is made.
Codes :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
81. Poverty in India 5 years ago was stated to be 37.2 percent. According to data released by the Planning commission In April 2011 poverty in India in 2009-10 has declined to
(a) 30% (b) 31%’
(c) 32% (d) 34%
82. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) RBI is the Central Bank of the country.
(b) RBI is the banker of the Central and the State Governments.
(c) RBI is the custodian of the country’s Foreign Exchange Reserve.
(d) RBI was established in 1949
83. Paper currency was first started in Indian in
(a) 1862 (b) 1542
(c) 1601 (d) 1880
84. Which one of the following items is not included in the Current Account of Balance of Payments in India ?
(a) Exports (b) Imports
(c) Income from non-factor services (d) Net non-resident deposits
85. Kundanulam Nuclear Power plant is being established in
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka
86. Which one of the following is not an objective of Monetary Policy ?
(a) Price Stability
(b) Economic Stability
(c) Equitable distribuion of Income and Assets
(d) Foreign Exchange Rate Stability
87. The first export processing zone of Asia was set up in 1965 in
(a) Al Hilai (b) Kandla
(c) Noida (d) Singapore
88. Which one of the following States/Union Territories has the least number of females per 1000 males as per provisional figures of Census 2011 ?
(a) Daman and Diu (b) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
(c) Pucucherry (d) Haryana
89. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor ?
(a) Thorium (b) Heavy water
(c) Radium (d) Ordinary water
90. Azolla is often used as biofertilizer, because it is associated with
(a) Blue Green Algae (b) Red Algae
(c) Fungus (d) Moss
91. Which of the following is used as laughing gas ?
(a) Nitrous Oxide (b) Nitrogen Dioxide
(c) Nitrogen Trioxide (d) Nitrogen Tetraoxide
92. Diseases of which of the following pairs are caused by virus ?
(a) Malaria and Polio
(b) Polio and Bird Flu
(c) Polio and Tuberculosis
(d) Tuberculosis and Influenza
93. Nepenthes Khasiana. a rare and endangered plant is found in
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Meghalaya (d) Uttar Pradesh
94. Opium is obtained from which part of the poppy plant?
(a) Flower (b) Leaves
(c) Unripe Fruits (d) Roots
95. Which of the following chemicals is used for ripening ?
(a) Sodium Chloride (b) Calcium Carbide
(c) Potassium Chloride (d) None of the above
96. Amongst the following flying organism which one does not belong to the group, Aves ?
(a) Bat (b) Crow
(c) Eagle (d) Parrot
97.Which one of the following spices is afloral bud ?
(a) Cumin (b) Clove
(c) Pepper (d) Turmeric
98. Which one of the following is an air pollutant gas and is released by burning of fossil fuel ?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur Dioxide
99. In the following pairs of plants and their edible parts, which pair Is not correctly matched ?
(a) Ginger – Rhizome
(b) Onion – Fleshy Leaves
(c) Potato – Roots
(d) Coconut – Endosperm
100. Which of t • following are required for the formation of bones and teeth?
(a) Sodium and Potassium
(b) Iron and Calcium
(c) Sodium and Calcium
(d) Calcium and Phosphorus
UPPCS Main Exam 2011 General Studies I Question Paper
101.Which one of the following is not a plant hormone ?
(a) Cytokinin (b) Ethylene
(c) Insulin (d) Gibberllin
102. One micron represents a length of
(a) 10−6 cm (b) 10−4cm
(c) 1 mm (d) 1 m
103. The Earth’s magnetic field is due to
(a) currents circulating inside the core
(b) presence of a huge magnet at its centre
(c) moving charges outside in space
(d) None of the above
104. CT Scan is done by using
(a) Infra-red Rays (b) Ultrasonic Waves
(c) Visible Light (d) X-Rays
105. Which of the following is used for correcting myopic eyes ?
(a) Concave Lens (b) Convex Lens
(c) Cylindrical Lens (d) None of the above
106. The sky appears blue due to
(a) Diffraction of light (b) Reflection of light
(c) Refraction of light (d) Scattering of light
107. Which of the following is the purpose for which a transformer is used ?
(a) To convert a.c. into d.c.
(b) To convert d.c. into a.c.
(c) To step-up or step-down a.c. voltage
(d) To step-up d.c. voltage
108. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(Molecules) (Metal Present)
A. Vitamin B-12 1. Magnesium
B. Hemoglobin 2. Cobalt
C. Chlorophyll 3. Copper
D. Chalcopyrite 4. Iron
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
109. Decibel unit is used to measure
(a) Light intensity
(b) Sound intensity
(c) Magnitude of Earthquake
(d) None of the above
110. The tail of a comet always points
(a) Away from the Sun (b) Towards the Sun
(c) Towards North-East (d) Towards South-East
111. “Blue tooth” technology allows
(a) Signal transmission on mobile phones only
(b) Landline phone to mobile phone communication
(c) Satellite television communication
(d) Wireless communication between equipments
112. What is the name given to the ICBM developed by India with a strike range of more than 2000 km ?
(a) Prithvi (b) Trishul
(c) Akash (d) Agni II
113. What does an air conditioner installed in a room control?
(a) Temperature only
(b) Humidity and temperature only
(c) Pressure and temperature only
(d) Humidity, pressure and temperature
114. Which of the following has the highest share in power generation in India ?
(a) Nuclear power
(b) Hydro power
(c) Thermal power
(d) All the above have equal share
115. Why is red light used as a danger signal ?
(a) Because it is scattered the least
(b) Because it is comfortable for eyes
(c) Because it produces the least chemical reaction
(d) Because it is absorbed the least in the air
116. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full image of a person is equal to
(a) the height of the person
(b) half the height of the person
(c) one-fourth the height of the person
(d) double the height of the person
117. Which of the following pairs is not properly matched ?
(a) The largest planet of – Jupiter the Solar System
(b) The smallest planet – Mercury of the Solar System
(c) The brightest planet – Venus of the Solar System
(d) The slowest moving – Mars planet of the Solar System
118. The liver disease Hepatitis-B is caused by
(a) DNA Virus (b) RNA Virus
(c) Bacterium (d) Platyhelminth
119. In a group of 26 persons, 8 take tea but not coffee and 16 take tea. The number of persons who take coffee but not tea is :
(a) 24 (b) 20
(c) 18 (d) 10
120. In the series 6,11, 21, A, 81, the value of A is
(a) 27 (b) 41
(c) 51 (d) 49
121. A rectangular sheet of Aluminium foil measuring 5 cms by 10 cms is rolled into a cylinder of height! 0 cms. If the cost of painting the cylinder is 2 per square cm, then the cost of painting the outer surface of the cylinder will be
(a) ` 100 (b) ` 150
(c) ` 200 (d) ` 400
122. Threecubesofedges3cm,4 cm and 5cm are melted to form a big cube. The ratio of the sum of the total surface of the three cubes and the total surface of the big cube is
(a) 2:1 (b) 3 : 2
(c) 25: 18 (d) 27:20
123. A prime number between 10 and 40 remains unchanged if its digits are reversed. The square of such a number is
(a) 12 (b) 484
(c) 1089 (d) None of the above
124. Ram is taller than Shyam, but shorter than Mohan, Ali is shorter than John and John is not as tall as Shyam. If ali of them stand in a row according to their height who will be in the middle ?
(a) Mohan (b) Ram
(c) Shyam (d) John
125. A is brother of B and M; G is mother of B; F is father of A. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) B is brother of M. (b) A is Father of M.
(c) G is wife of F. (d) A is son of F.
126. If the salary of ‘B’ is 10% more than the salary of A’ and the salary of ‘C’ is 10%less than the salary of ‘B’, which of the following statements will be correct ?
(a) The salary of ‘B’ is the least.
(b) The salary of ‘C is the least.
(c) ‘A’ and ‘C both have equal salary.
(d) The salary of ‘A’ is the least.
127. If the sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 50, the ratio of the two numbers will be
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 4:1 (d) 5 : 1
128. If the price of tea goes up from ? 200 per kg to? 250 per kg, what is the percentage by which a man must reduce the consumption so that he continues to spend the same amount on tea?
(a) 25 percent (b) 20 percent
(c) 28 percent (d) 30 percent
129. In a class of 100 students, 35 students failed in Mathematics and 25 students failed in English. If 15 students failed in Mathematics and English both, what is the number of students, who passed in both the subjects?
(a) 40 (b) 45
(c) 55 (d) 60
130. Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand on a flat ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 m, what will be the distance between their tops?
(a) 12 m (b) 13 m
(c) 14 m (d) 15 m
131. A number when divided by 296 gives the remainder of 75. what will be the remainder if the same number is divided by 37 ?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 8 (d) 11
132. Taking the four vertices of a square as centres, four circles of equal diameter are drawn in such a way that each circle touches two other circles, as shown in the figure below :

(a) 2.5 cm (b) 4.0 cm
(c) 7.5 cm (d) 6.0 cm
133. In a shooting competition, the average score of 8 competitions was 87 points. If two top competitions whose average score differed by 2 points were absent, the average would have been 85 points. The top score was
(a) 98 (b) 96
(c) 94 (d) 92
134. Six toys look alike, but one of them is lighter than the others. What is the minimum number of times, a balance is to be used to find it?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) More than 3
135. If B + D > 2C, B + C = 2D, A + C > B + D and A + D > B + C, the relations between A, B, C and D is
(a) B > D > C > A (b) A > D > C > B
(c) B > B > D > C (d) A > B > D > C
136. The surface area of a cube is 216 sq. m. What is its volume?
(a) 512cu.m. (b) 480cu.m.
(c) 216cu.m. (d) l00 cu.m.
137. A path of uniform width of 2.5 m runs outside a square field all around. What will be the length of the side of the square field, if the area of the path is 625 sq. m?
(a) 60 m (b) 55 m
(c) 50 m (d) 70 m
138. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 20 and 30 minutes each respectively. When both the pipes were opened together to fill the cistern, it took 3 minutes longer than usual to fill up the cistern because of a leakage through a hole in the bottom of the cistern. If the cistern is full, in how many minutes, it will get emptied because of the leakage?
(a) 10 minutes (b) 20 minutes
(c) 30 minutes (d) 60 minutes
139. A certain amount of money becomes ? 944 in three years by earning simple interest. If the rate of interest is increased by25%, the amount would become ? 980 during the same period. What was the principal amount ?
(a) ` 600 (b) ` 800
(c) ` 860 (d) ` 700
140. A boat travels 10 kms in one hour down the stream and 14 kms in 2 hours up the stream. The time it will take to travel 17 kms in still water is
(a) 1 hour (b) 11/2 hours
(c) 1 ¾ hours (d) 2 hours

142. The difference between the greates and the least numbers of five digits formed by using the digits n 2, 3, 6 and 7 once, is
(a) 35905 (b) 50953
(c) 55953 (d) 95821

144. If the following words were arranged in acending order of magnitude, with which letter the word in their middle will end ? “minute, hour, second, year, day, month, week”
(a) d (b) r
(c) y (d) k
145. A big carton containing mangoes weighs 1501cg, while inside it there are eight small cartons and in each one of them mangoes of equal weight have been kept. If the weight of the big carton whenemptyis6 kg and that of each small carton is 2 kg, what is the weight of the mangoes in each small carton ?
(a) 15 kg (b) 16 kg
(c) 10 kg (d) 12 kg
146. Which one of the following sets is different from others ?
(a) 41, 5, 3, 47 (b) 11, 5, 43, 17
(c) 71, 7, 3, 17 (d) 43, 21, 7, 18

148. A point is selected at random inside a rectangle and perpendiculars are drawn on each side of the rectangle from the point. The total length of these perpendiculars is 40 cm. If one side of the rectangle is3 times the other, what will be the area of the rectangle ?
(a) 300 sq. cm. (b) 350 sq. cm.
(c) 192 sq. cm. (d) None of the above
149. ‘A’ bought 13 shirts of ` 50 each, 15 sweaters of ` 60 each and 12 ties of ` 65 each. His average expenditure per article was
(a) ` 58.25 (b) ` 59.00
(c) ` 60.15 (d) ` 61.20
150. For a certain year, the percentage of the total population by age-group is as follows:
Age-Group in years Percentage
15 years or less 30
16-25 17.75
26-25 17.25
36-45 14.50
46-55 14.25
56-65 5.12
66 and above 1.13
If 200 million people were below 36 years in age, approximately how many million will be in the age group 56 – 65 ?
(a) 12.75 (b) 14.90
(c) 15.75 (d) None of the above

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