U.P.P.C.S. (Main) Examination – 2013 GENERAL STUDIES SECOND PAPER
1. The Constitution of India was adopted and enacted on
(a) January 26, 1950
(b) February 11 – 1 948
(c) November 26,1949
(d) None of the above dates
2. Recently (in 2013) a term ‘Roshni’ was in the news. It is related to
(a) Cataract’ eradication programme.
(b) Skill development and training programme for tribal youths,
(c) Skill development programme lor tribal women.
(d) An NGO working for the upliftment of slum workers.
3. Recently (in 2013) Government of India has approved the proposal of providing loans to Women Self Help Groups at a lower interest rate to eradicate poverty through women empowerment. The interest rate is
(a) 7%
(b) 6.5 %
(c) 7.5%
(d) 8%
4.
5. Kandla, situated in the Gulf of Kuchchh, is well known for which of the following ?
(a) Ship-breaking industry
(b) Cutting and polishing of diamonds
(c) Export processing zone
(d) Traditional Act and Craft centre
6. Which of the following states had less Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) than All India Average IMR in 2011?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
7. Which of the following countries is the largest exporter of gold to India?
(a) Brazil
(b) UAE
(c) Switzerland
(d) South Africa
8. Railways have raised the rail fare by 2 percent with effect from October 7, 2013 . The increase is applicable to
(a) All the trains
(b) Only to suburban and passenger trains
(c) Only to passenger and express :trains
(d) All the trains except suburban and passenger trains
9. The combined share of exports and imports of goods was 14.2 percent of GDP in 1909-91. In 2011-12 this share became
(a) almost two times that of 1990-91
(b) almost three times that of 1990-91
(c) almost five times that of 1990-91
(d) almost ten times that of 1990-91
10. During 2001 and 2011, the sex ratio in Uttar Pradesh has improved by
(a) 20 females per 1000 males
(b) 10 females per 1000 males
(c) 60 females per 1000 males
(d) 40 females per 1000 males
11. Which of the following is not responsible for poverty?
(a) Inadequate growth rate
(b) High growth rate of population
(c) Unemployment
(d) Increasing rate of investment
12. On October 4, 2012, the Government of India has proposed to change the limits of FDI in Insurance Sector. It is proposed to
(a) raise the FDI limit from 26% to 49%
(b) raise the FDI limit from 49% to 74%
(c) raise the FDI limit from 26% to 51 %
(d) decrease the FDI limit from 74% to 49%
13. “Swadhar” is scheme for
(a) Women in difficult circumstances.
(b) Self-employment for males.
(c) Common home for senior citizens.
(d) Unique identification of citizens.
14. The financial year for Banks is April -March ; but what if the financial year for RBI?
(a) January-December
(b) April – March
(c) October – September
(d) July-June
15. Which among the following products is not usually exported from India?
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Sugar
(d) Pulses
16. ‘Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) India ‘was a colony of Britain till 1947.
(b) The Indian economy stagnated-during British rule.
(c) India was a supplier of manufacturing goods during British rule.
(d) India was a supplier of raw materials during British rule.
17. In which state was the Bhoodan Movement first started?
(a) In Andhra Prasesh
(b) ln Karnataka
(c) In Tamil Nadu
(d) In Uttar Pradesh
18. Consider the following statements regarding service tax.
1. It is a direct tax.
2. It is an indirect tax.
3. It was introduced during 1994-95.
Of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the code given below:
Code :
(a) Only (1) is correct.
(b) Only (2) and (3) are correct.
(c) Only (1) and (3) are correct.
(d) Only (2) is correct.
19. The policy of liberalisation, Privatisation and globalisation was accepted as new economic policy by Prime Minister
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Vishwnath Pratap Singh
(c) Narsimha Rao
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
20. Which of the following statements is incorrect for ‘Green Climate Fund” (G CF)
(a) It was established in the Durban Conference of Climate Change.
(b) It would support programmes and policies in developing nations.
(c) The developed nations would provide the fund.
(d) The fund will start operating from 2014.
21. Who has for the first time estimated national income in India?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) V.K.R.V.Rao
(d) D.R. Gadgil
22. In the 12th Five Year Plan, which among the following has largest allocation of funds?
(a) Energy
(b) Transport
(c) Social Services
(d) Rural Development
23. The standard of living in a country is represented by
(a) Poverty ratio
(b) Per capita income
(c) National income
(d) Unemployment rate
24. Which of the following states was the largest producer of pulses in 2011-2012?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh
25. In 2011 which two countries accounted for the largest share percent in India’s total trade with rest of the world?
(a) China and UAE
(b) U.S.A. and Saudi Arabia
(c) UAE and Saudi Arabia
(d) Germany and Japan .
26. Mixed economy in India means
(a) Co-existence of large and small scale industries.
(b) Foreign collaboration in economic development.
(c) Co-existence of public and private sector.
(d) None of the above
27. Which one of the following crops is not included in the National Food Security Mission (NFSM)?
(a) Wheat
(b) Pulses
(c) Rice
(d) Course Cereals
28. Which one of the following organisations administers finances of Rural infrastructural Developmet fund.
(a) RBI
(b) NABARD
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
29. According to new RBI Governor, which among the following factors determines the exchange value of money?
1. High inflation rate
2. High fiscal deficit
3. High crude oil prices
Choose the correct answer from the code below:
Code:
(a) All the three above factors
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 1
30. India and Japan on January 12, 2012 agreed to enhance their cooperation in which of the following sector?
(a) Tourism
(b) Road and Transport
(c) Coal and Mining
(d) Infrastructure
31. Which among the following agency regulates the mutual funds in India?
(a) SEBI
(b) National Stock Exchange
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Indian Bank Association
32. D.T. P. vaccine is given to protect from
(a) Tetanus, Polio, Plague
(b) T.B., Polio, Diphtheria
(c) Diphtheria, Whooping Cough, Tetanus
(d) Diphtheria, Polio, Leprosy
33. “National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources is situated at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Chennai
34. The process used for transforming salty water into pure water is called
(a) deliquescence
(b) efflorescence
(c) electric separation
(d) Reverse osmosis
35. A man is standing on a sensitive balance. If he inhales deeply, the reading of the balance
(a) Increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) may increase or decrease depending on the atmospheric pressure
36. Arthritis is causes by the deposition of which of the following in the joints of the body?
(a) Urea
(b) Uric Acid
(c) Albumin
(d) Cholesterol
37. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. Which of the two has a larger resistance?
(a) The dim bulb
(b) The brighter bulb
(c) Both have the same resistance
(d) The brightness does not depend on the resistance
38. The jet aircraft flies very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
Explanation :
(i) There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
(ii) There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
Which of the above explanation is/are correct in this context?
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) both (i) and (ii)
(d) neither (i) nor (ii)
39. Red light is used in traffic signals because
(a) it has the longest wave length.
(b) it is beautiful
(c) it is visible to people even with bad eye sight.
(d) none of the above reasons.
40. Which organ of the body is affected most on keeping fast for a long time?
(a) Heart
(b) Intestine
(c) Lung
(d) Kidney
41. To operate a T.V. set, a remote control unit uses which of the following?
(a) Sound waves
(b) Light waves
(c) Radio waves
(d) Microwaves
42. Recently a chemical weapon was used in the civil war of Syria. What is that chemical agent?
(a) Mustard gas
(b) Chlorine gas
(c) Methyl isocyanide gas
(d) Sarin gas
43. In the sale of diamonds the unit of weight is carat One carat is equal to ‘
(a) l00 mg
(b) 200 mg
(c) 300 mg
(d) 400 mg
44. The Earth travels on its orbit at a speed of approx 4,400 Kms per hour. Why do we not feel this high speed ?
(a) Because we are too small compared to the size of the earth.
(b) Our relative speed with respect to the Earth along the earth’s orbit is zero.
(c) The solar system as a whole is also moving.
(d) The gravity of the Barth constantly pulls us towards the Earth’s centre
45. Which one of the following is an indigenously built light combat aircraft?
(a) Aakash
(b) Tejas
(c) Vikrant
(d) Arjun
46. Which of the following chemical is used in artlfical rain?
(a) Silver iodide
(b) Potassium Chlorate
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Zinc iodide
47. Consider the following statement and conclusions which can be drawn from it. Choose the correct conclusion.
Statement : In starting a loaded cart, on has to push harder than to keep it moving.
Conclusion:
(a) The weight of a moving object is less.
(b) The wheels tend to slip with initially.
(c) There is less friction once the cart starts moving.
(d) Practice makes perfect.
48. The gas, used in the manufacture of Vanaspati Ghee from Vanaspati Oil, is
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide
49. Satellite is kept moving in its orbit around the Earth; it is due to
(a) Centrifugal force
(b) Centripetal force
(c) Gravitational force or lack of it
(d) Some other forces
50. Consider the following assertion and reason and select the correct answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A) : Ozone kills mlcroorganism in water.
Reason (R) : Ozone is not radioactive .
Codes :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
51.
52. Waves used for telecommunication are
(a) Visible light
(b) Infrared
(c) Ultraviolet
(d) Microwave
53. An object is placed between two parallel plane mirrors. The number of images formed is
(a) four
(b) one
(c) two
(d) infinite
54. In SONAR, we use
(a) Radio waves
(b) Audible sound waves
(c) Ultra-sonic waves
(d) Infra-sonic waves
55. The powder used for developing finger prints on a multi-coloured surface is
(a) Gold dust
(b) Manganese dioxide
(c) Charcoal
(d) Fluorescent powder
56. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose your answer from given code:
Assertion (A) : The upper surface of the wings of an aeroplane is made convex and the lower surface is made concave.
Reason (R) : The air current at the top has less velocity and thus less pressure at the bottom than at the top.
Code :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false and, (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true and (R) as false.
57. The main constituents of Liquid Petroleum Gas (LP G) are
(a) Methane, Ethane and Hexane
(b) Methane, Pentane and Hexane
(c) Ethane, Propane and Butane
(d) Methane, Carbon Monoxide? and Hydrogen
58. For the myopic eye, the defect is cured by
(a) Convex lens
(b) Concave lens
(c) Cylindrical lens
(d) None of the above
59. An Astronaut cannot hear his companion at the surface of the moon because
(a) Produced frequencies are above the audio frequency.
(b) temperature is too low during night and too high during day.
(c) there is no medium for sound propagation.
(d) there are many craters on the Moon’s surface.
60. The red colour of the Sun at sunset and sun-rise is due to
(a) scattering of light
(b) retraction of light
(c) total Internal reflection of light
(d) dispersion of light
61. The image formed by an astronomical telescope is
(a) virtual and diminished
(b) virtual and magnified
(c) real and diminished
(d) real and magnified
62. What is the missing number in the following series?
3, 10, 17. 31,45,66-?-
(a) 94
(b) 85
(c) 87
(d) 92
63. A train starts from place A at 5 P.M. and reaches place B at 6 P.M. and another train starts from. place B at 5 P.M. and reaches place A at 6 : 30 P.M. The two trains will cross each other at
(a) 5:50 P. M.
(b) 5 48 P. M.
(c) 5:45 P.M.
(d) 5:36 P.M.
64. Which of the following figures are such that they can be drawn once without lifting the pencil and without repeating any line?
(a) Only (A) and (C)
(b) Only (B) and (D)
(c) Only (A) and (B)
(d) Only (A).(C) and (D)
65. If the radius of a circle is increased by 25%, then area of the circle will increase by
(a) 25%
(b) 37.5%
(c) 50%
(d) 56.25%
66. Which of the following fractions are arranged in ascending order?
67. A shopkeeper gains 4% more by selling an article for Rs. 180 than if he sells it for Rs. 175. The cost price of the article is
(a) Rs. 120
(b) Rs. 125
(c) Rs. 140
(d) Rs. 150
68. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is in between F and C A is in between E and D. F is in the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
69. If the selling price of Id articles is equal to the purchasing price of 11 articles, then percentage gain is
(a) 9.0
(b) 10.0
(c) 10.1
(d) 11.0
70. In an examination, the ratio of passes to failures was 4 :1. If 30 students less had appeared and 20 less passed, the ratio of passes to failures would have been 5 : 1. How many students appeared for the examination?
(a) 150
(b) 120
(c) 100
(d) None of the above
71. A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 12.When 36 is added to it. the digits interchange their places. Unit digit of this number is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) None of the above
72. A person going on foot and coming back by rickshaw to a place takes 5 hours and 45 minutes. When he uses rickshaw both ways, he saves two hours. What time will he take if he goes and come back on foot ?
(a) 3 hours 45 minutes
(b) 7 hours 45 minutes
(c) 7 hours 30 minutes
(d) 6 hours 45 minutes
73. The effective yield corresponding to an interest rate of 12 percent per annum payable half yearly will be:
(a) 12%
(b) 12.25%
(c) 12.36%
(d) 12.5%
74. Three cubes of edges 3 cms, 4 cms and 5 cms are melted to form a bigger cube. The ratio of the total surface area of the bigger cube and the sum total of the surface areas of the three smaller cubes is
(a) 20 : 27
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2
(d) none of the above
75. If one of the angles of a triangle is 100°, then the angle between the angle bisectors of other angles is
(a) 80°
(b) 100°
(c) 120°
(d) 140°
76. What would come in place of question mark (?) in the following ? 1CV,5FU,9IT,?,170R
(a) 11 LS
(b) 13LS
(c) 13 JS
(d) 15 LS
77. The smallest number x, such that the LCM of 15, 20, x is 180, is
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 18
(d) 45
78. There are five books A, B, C, D and E, C lies above D, E is below A, D is above A and B is below E. Which book is in the exact middle?
(a) E
(b) B
(c) A
(d) C
79. The eighth terms of the sequence 5,10,13,26,29,58,61
will be
(a) 64
(b) 122
(c) 125
(d) 128
80. Which number will come next at (?) in the following sequence?
3,6,5,5,8,3,12,(7)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
81. A television set when sold for 13,600 incurred a loss of 15 %. At what price it should have been sold to make a profit of 20% on the cost price?
(a) Rs. 17,900
(b) Rs. 18,400
(c) Rs. 19,200
(d) Rs. 20,400
82. A man walks 2 metres East, then 2 Metres South, followed by 2 metres East, 3 metres North and 4 metres West. How long must he walk and in what direction to reach his starting point
(a) 1 metre North
(b) 1 metre South
(c) 2 metre North
(d) 2 metre South West
84. If 5432 stands for RUNG and 6108 for FAST, Then 8453 stands for
(a) TURN
(b) TUBS
(c) TART
(d) TEST
85. Find out the missing term in the following series: CZX, DYW, EXV, FWU,—?—.
(a) GTV
(b) GVS
(c) HVT
(d) GVT
86. Arrangemet of the following words Friction, Favour, Friend, Frugal, Fasten, Facilitate
1 2 3 4 5 6
in the dictionary in order is.
(a) 3,6,5,2. 1,4
(b) 6,5,2, 1,3,4
(c) 2.1.6. 5, 3, 4
(d) 6, 1,2,5,4,3
87. The missing number at? in the following table is
10
5
15
10
3
7
10
2
20
10
?
2
(a) 8
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 4
88. Richa is older than Kavita who is younger than Archana. Varsha is older than Bharti but younger then Kavita. Archana is younger than Richa. Who is the youngest?
(a) Richa
(b) Archana
(c) Kavita
(d) Bharti
89. A sum of Rs. 6,240 is paid off in 30 instalments in such a way that each instalment is Rs. 10 more than the preceding instalment. The value of the first instalment is
(a) Rs.30
(b) Rs.45
(c) Rs. 63
(d) Rs.72
90. In a class of 100 students, 40 students failed in English and 22 students failed in Hindi. If 15 students failed in English and Hindi both, the number of students, who passed in both, is
(a) 38
(b) 47
(c) 53
(d) 78
91. The second number in a series is twice the first number and three times the third number . Arithmetic mean of these three numbers is 44. The largest number will be
(a) 72
(b) 66
(c) 60
(d) 54
92. The first quartile is also known as
(a) Median
(b) Lower quartile
(c) Mode
(d) Third decile
93. Which one is the correct formula of quartile deviation?
94. The value of coefficent of correlation lies between
(a) 0 and 1
(b) 0 and -l
(c) -1 and 1
(d) 1 and 10
95. In the following figure the triangle represents men, the rectangle represents employed ones and the circle represents doctors. Which is the area of the figure that represents men doctors who are employed?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 2
96. The pie-chart below shows qualification of employees of a company. If number of post graduates is 55, the number of employees having education below graduation is
(a) 290
(b) 340
(c) 360
(d) 400
97. The harmonic mean of three numbers is 18. If two numbers are 12 and 36, the third number is
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 20
98. The pie-chart below gives the expenditure on different items in a house construction.
The percentage expenditure on labour is
99. Two fair dice are thrown . Given that sum of two numbers obtained is 8, the probability that one of the numbers is 2, will be
100. In a certain area 40 percent inhabitants were females and 45 percent were tea drunkers. If the percentage of male tea drunkers was 20, then percentage of female non tea drunkers will be
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 18
101. If three years ago the average age of a family of 6 members was 19 years. A baby having been born, the average age of the family now remains the same.The age or baby in years is
(a) 11/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) none of the above
102. The average of five numbers is 8 and the average of the last three number is 6. Then the average of first two numbers is
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 14
103. Ogives for more then type and less than type intersect at
(a) origin
(b) more
(c) mean
(d) median
104. Consider the following table:
Marks
Number of Students
1-10
2
11-20
4
21 -30
6
31 -40
3
41 – 50
3
51 -60
2
The percentage of students obtaining marks more than 10 but less than or equal to 40 will be
(a) 13
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
105. The arithmetic mean of all odd positive numbers less than 100 will be
(a) 49.0
(b) 49.5
(c) 50.0
(d) 50.5
106. If Q, D and P stand for quartile, decile and percentile respectively then which of the following relations among the location parameter does not hold?
107. The following table gives the number of employees in different age groups. The average age of employess below 40 years of age is
Age group
20-30
30-40
40-50
50-60
Number of
Employees
40
60
55
35
(a) 26.0
(b) 31.0
(c) 32.5
(d) 33.5
108. In an ogive curve, the points are plotted for
(a) the values and cumulative frequencies.
(b) the values and frequencies
(c) frequencies & cumulative frequencies
(d) none of the above .
109. According to the chart below, how many students are enrolled in class X, if the total enrolment is 2500?
(a) 525
(b) 750
(c) 850
(d) 375
110. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Numbers and Data are the same thing.
(b) Statistics cannot be misused.
(c) Use of statistical Science is almost universal.
(d) Statistics helps in gettin an accurate answer for any business problem
112. Consider the following distribution:
Vales Frequency
The type of above distribution in
(a) Inclusive class type
(b) Exclusive class type
(c) Discrete type
(d) None of the above
113. Given the following data:
Class Interval Frequency
If the mean is 18, then the value of A is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 10
114. Which of the following is not related with presentation of data?
(a) Editing of data
(b) Statistical tables
(c) Diagrams
(d) Graphs
115. The mean of four observations a, b, c, d, is 50. If A = a – 5, B = b -10, C = c -25 and D = d – 40, then mean of A, B, C, D is
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 50
116. For a group of 60 individuals, the A.M. (Arithmetic Mean) of X and Y are 64 and 57 respectively. Then theA.M.of Z = X + 2Y is
(a) 178
(b) 171
(c) 173
(d) 177
117. The geometric mean of 3,9,27,81,243 is equal to
(b) 9
(c) 36
(d) 27
118. The following table gives performance of 500 students in four tests:
Age group
(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
Average Marks
65
65
60
82
Range of Marks
25-85
15-100
55-75
0-100
A stutend scores 74 marks in each test, Comparatively in which test he perfomed best?
(a) (I)
(b) (II)
(c) (III)
(d) (IV)
119. If in a grouped data, the median is 50 and each frequency is multiplied by 2, then the new median is
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 50
(d) 150
120. The average of four numbers is 28.1f the average of first three of them is twice the fourth number, then the fourth number is
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 13
(d) 14
121. Consider the following distribution :
X
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
f
10
8
13
18
20
25
26
Which of the following is median of the above distribution?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 3
122. Which article gives safeguard to the fundamental rights of arrested person?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22
123. The vacant post of the president is to be filled up within
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) Six months
(d) One year
124. Who/which of the following is competent of prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizentship?
(a) Election Commission
(b) President
(c) Parliament and State Legislatures Jointly
(d) Parliament
125. The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of
(a) Council of State
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Minister
127. The word ‘Secularism’ was inserted in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by
(a) 25th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 52ndAmendment
128. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) The Preamble
(d) Rights to Constitutional Remedies
129. Which among the following is not a constitutional provision for the formation of new states?
(a) Increase the area of any state.
(b) Diminish the area of any state.
(c) Alter the name of any state.
(d) A state may include a Union territory.
130. By which amendment the ‘Right to Property’ has been omitted?
(a) 24th
(b) 44 th
(c) 25 th
(d) 42nd
131. Who was the first woman to become the Prime Minister of any country?
(a) Sirimavo Bhandarnaike
(b) Margaret Thatcher
(c) GoIda Meir
(d) Indira Gandhi
132. The number of India States after the formation of Telangana will be
(a) 27
(b) 28
(c) 29
(d) 30
133. The first day session of Indian Constitutent Assembly was chaired by
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
134. The system of Judicial Review is Prevalent in
(a) India only
(b) U.K. only
(c) U.S.A. only
(d) Both in India and U.S.A
135. Which of the following is not a Union Teritory?
(a) The Andaman and Nicobar Island
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Goa
(d) Puducherry
136. Who among the following has the authority to preside over the joint session of the Parliament ?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
137. In Indian Policy, which one of the following is Supreme?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The Constitution
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Religion
138. Right to Information Act was passed in the year.\
(a) 2001
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2002
139. Who/which of the following is not an integral part of Parliament?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
140. The members of Standing Committee of Parliament are taken from the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in which ratio?
(a) Two and one respectively.
(b) Three and one respectively.
(c) Four and one respectively.
(d) In equal numbers from both the Houses
141. Who amongst the following was the first woman Governor of a State in free India?
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Sucheta Kriplani
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
142. Which Article of Indian Constitul in eradicates untouchability and prohibits its practice in any from?
(a) Article 16
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 18
(d) Article 15
143. How many members can table the “No Confidence Motion” against the Councile of Ministers in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 30 members
(b) 40 members
(c) 50 members
(d) 60 members
144. The Indian Economy is a
(a) Liberal Economy
(b) Socialist Economy
(c) Mixed Economy
(d) None of the above
145. A ‘Federal System’ and ‘diarchy’ in the ‘Centre’ was introduced in India by
(a) The Act of 1909
(b) The Acf of l919
(c) The Act of 1935
(d) None of the above
146. Where from the pension of a retired High Court Judge is charged?
(a) Consolidated fund of India.
(b) Consolidated fund of the state where he last served.
(c) Consolidated fund of the different states where he has served.
(d) Contingency fund of India.
147. Under which law Is it prescribed that all proceeding in the Supreme Court or India shall be in English language?
(a) The.Supreme Court rules, 1966
(b) Article 145 of the Constitution of India.
(c) A Legislation made by Parliament.
(d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
148. Which of the following is related to the theme of ‘Grass Root Democracy’?
(a) Lokpal
(b) Panchayati Raj System
(c) Inter-State Council
(d) Regional Politics
149. Who among the following has the executive power to admit a state in the union or establish new states?
(a) Parliament
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Political Parties
(d) Central Government
150. Which of the following statements is correct about’ prime Minister of India?
(a) Prime Minister is the nominal head of the Council of Ministars
(b) He is not responsible to the Parliament.
(c) He cannot dismiss any of his ministers.
(d) Prime Ministers is the real head of the Council of Ministers.
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